Wrong. It’s the day before ( easily googled )
So you can sell the day before the ex div date? So why would they give an ex div date then? Think you find your wrong! I’ve sold before ex div and got nothing
No, I think this is wrong as well. You have to have the holding on the morning of the ex-dividend date to get the dividend. So, to use the example here, selling on 27th means you get the dividend. Selling the day before on 26th means you don’t.
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Ex dividend date is the first day that a stock trades without being eligible for the dividend.
You need to be holding at market close on the day before Ex dividend date to get the dividend. Effectively this also means you will still be holding at market open on the Ex dividend date
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Agree with the above post that is my understanding
Sorry I’ve got no idea what you’re talking about now and I think we’re at cross purposes, however @Dave explains the timings perfectly in the post above.
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Ex is Latin for “out of” so the ex dividend date is the date that is outside of the day a dividend is earned.
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Correct agreed
Looking at ETFs with high TER, (0.60%-0/65%), and I have a noob question:
is the TER already factored in the purchase price, or is a cost that will hit separately on regular dates?
Cheers 
Already included
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What is the difference between the S&P 500 etfs?
I understand there are accumulation and distribution.
I don’t understand why there are a list of brands such as Vanguard, Blackrock, HSBC, Invesco, and more.
Is it just the company brand value, does it provide competition for better fees, are the fund managers using the voting rights differently?
Just a partial answer.
The S&P500 ETF’s come in all flavours, here you can look at the details and compare them.
Re voting right, here is another article from just ETF.
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Each company needs to offer a whole range of ETF’s which means on some platforms there is quite a lot of duplication. There will be differences between the management fees And tracking efficiency (how often and effectively they balance their holdings).
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Thank you both for your responses, the links were interesting!
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Hi, I need to ask as I don’t deal with much usa shares I try to buy in pounds even if it’s about the USA.
So say I’m £170 up on a company if I sold that right now do I get £170 or do I pay 15% on that plus fx fees again?
When I bought I get I paid fx fees then as well? But no 15% tax yet.
This is just so I can calculate actual profit I’m not sure if freetrade has deducted the fx fees etc from the buy from what it’s saying my profit is of £170.
Sorry for the confusion, it’s just say I was only just in profit if it’s not already deducted from the profit it could look like I’m in profit but actually I’m at a loss or have broke even.
So I just want to learn and clear that up properly for future buys in other currecys, thanks
Are you UK based?
Yes, I am thanks
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FX fee. This is a transaction fee and depends on the plan you are on. For the standard account, you would pay 0.59% fee on top of the £170
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15% tax. This applies only to US dividends, you only see a net amount but the breakdown of costs is quite clear in FT’s email
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Exchange rate. This can be a killer, but for a small amount is almost negligible.
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Gain/Loss. This is net of everything, except HMRC’s charges
. Of course, if you cash some US shares to go on holiday, you will incur in all the transaction-related charges mentioned above.
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