Free share for inviting friends

I am just wondering if anyone has received any shares of higher value.

Me and my friend both received the same share(boohoo) worth £4. Doesn’t seem very random/fair

My friend received T-Mobile worth around £86.

In return, I got Scottish American Investment worth only £4, so no, definitely not fair :rofl:


I got my first two free shares yesterday - Boohoo and Avast (£5.26) - low value but still free so I’m not complaining :slight_smile:


I’ve had PayPoint and Aston Martin (before they tanked), was about a tenner in total. Can’t complain

1 Like

You probably need a sample size of more than 2 before you comment on randomness.


I absolutely can comment on the randomness. Firstly how many shares are between the range of £3-£200, and we both happen to receive the exact same one. Secondly this is a discussion as I was curious to see what others have received.

Back in August, I received £IGLS (worth £133 at the time).


Firstly how many shares are between the range of £3-£200, and we both happen to receive the exact same one.

If you read the terms and conditions you would see there are 90 free stocks that you have the chance of getting.

There is a 1/90 chance of 2 people getting the same share.

You just happen to be that guy it happened to.

1 Like

If there are 90 different free stocks it could have been then the probability of me getting any of the stocks is 1/90.
So how is that the same probability of 2 people getting the same exact share?
I think you may find the probability would then be 1/90^2(1/8100) of us both getting the same share.

So not impossible then.

His maths is wrong anyway.

The probability is 1/90.

The probability of him guessing he would get Boohoo - getting it - then his friend getting the same is 1/8100. But that isn’t what happened.


Another way to look at it. You’re going to get a free share. It doesn’t matter which one so the probability is 90/90 = 1.
The probability that your friend gets the same share, whichever that happens to be, is then 1/90.

Still, even at a 1/90 chance it will surely feel like it isn’t random when you are the 1.


Where’s Rachael Riley when you need her most?


Lol, how is my maths wrong? You clearly said the probability of 2 people getting the same exact share is 1/90 when it’s 1/8100. It’s your maths that is wrong. The probability of someone getting the same share as me GIVEN I have already received a particular share is 1/90 but that wasn’t what is being discussed here now is it. So it’s either your grasp of the English language or YOUR maths that’s wrong. My maths was perfectly fine.

Yes. It’s possible just not probable :slight_smile:

No your maths is not right, it would be 1/8100 if you guessed the share first and then both of you got the one you had guessed.

But once one of you has already got a particular share it’s only 1/90 that the other one gets the same share

@rivorson has the maths right

I believe the probabilities are weighted anyway so that you are less likely to get something worth £200 than something worth $5


It’s exactly what’s being discussed?

If you roll a random number on a dice - what is the probability your mate then rolls the same number.

Answer: 1/6.

Or imagine you have a bag with 90 numbered balls in and your friend has an identical bag.

If you pull out a random ball - the friend has a 1/90 chance of pulling out the same from his bag.

No it really isn’t. In your ball bag situation, you are negating the randomness of pulling the first ball out. He/she has a 1/90 of pulling out any number between 1-90.
In your example he has a 1/90 chance of pulling out a 6. The friend also has a 1/90 chance of pulling out a 6.
The chance of them both pulling out a 6 is 1/8100 which is the situation being discussed. It’s not that hard

1 Like

You have a 90/90 probability of pulling out any number between 1-90.

If you have a dice what do you think the probability is of you rolling the same number twice?

Answer: 1/6.

The confusion is in the frame of comparison, specifically what you decide on what your target value should be.
If you decide on the target value is a specific stock then yes you would multiple the odds by each other. However if your comparison is that one stock should be the same as the other then the the first stock is your comparison value and does not contribute to the odds.

Let’s take the ball bag example. In the situation two people will each select one numbered ball at random from their identical bags.
There are two different questions you can ask which have different answers.

Question 1:
What is the chance that both people draw 10?

Person 1 draws 10. Odds 1/90.
Person 2 draws 10. Odds 1/90.

1/90 * 1/90 = 1/8100.

Question 2:
What is the chance that both people draw the same number?

Person 1 draws any number. Odds = 90/90 = 1.
Person 2 draws the same number as person 1. Odds 1/90.

1 * 1/90 = 1/90.