Did you elect?
(I donāt believe thereās a way to!)
Haha, so I got sucked into reading that link and then read the next post tooā¦
The level of conspiracy theories going on is amazing. This is basically the plot of a movie right here:
I guess I should buy more stocks of CINE ready for when it releases!
Bloody hell, after about 2 mins I got bored of him writing about the boring last couple days he had with nothing to do with the subject matter
That is one seriously long message TL;DR
Funny thing is if he was on FT he would soon be complaining he has to sell at 25k batches and it would take too long
It is great, I know every post on WSB (and half the other capital markets subs) reads like a Tumblr fan fiction, except instead of One Direction itās GME bull erotica, but this is a step above anything else Iāve seen.
Honestly if they can work in a few new characters and a bit of romance (maybe a love triangle between Citadel, Jane St and Virtu?) this could be a bestseller.
The one thing I canāt get my head around is who is selling the shares I can buy for $151? and why wouldnāt the ābadsā just hoover up any available? Are they waiting to have to pay more? And finally, surely there will be a tipping point where the Bads have enough and then donāt need any more leaving Apes missing the target price.
Itās far too complicated for me
I like to put money in to companies I believe in long term and hope to hit 10% a year.
Cheers I get the above but surely there are enough retail that are stubborn to not allow it to happen. Whatever happens I hope it finishes soon
Havenāt any of you longs figured out why GME closed up 1 cent yesterday?
clue: a hidden message in an ice cream cone
My gains are wafer thin.
Some holders might get a bit flaky if it goes to 99
Not me, Iām holding on for hundreds and thousands.
So you must have jelly diamond hands.
How are Puts relevant to short squeeze? A put is the option, but not obligation to sell at a strike price. If the Hedge fund sold the puts they have an obligation to buy the shares if the person who bought the put decides to exercise it. but they are buying the shares from person who bought the put option. They donāt need to buy on the open market. The person with the option has to find the shares if they want to exercise it.
Conversely if the hedge fund bought the puts, they have no obligation to exercise them. So yeah these options could mean big losses for someone but I donāt see how they contribute to a squeeze
Assuming the person who sold the option still owns the shares (which isnāt necessarily a given), they likely have them stored with a broker who might have lent those shares out without informing the owner. When the owner sells, theyāre none the wiser, but the broker then has to find these shares from somewhere and so has to either buy them at the market rate themselves or not renewing the lend to the short seller so the short seller has to buy them at current market rate in order to return them.
Either way, exercising the options causes someone to have to buy some shares to fulfil them, which contributes to the squeeze.
If they donāt actually own the shares any more, they have to get them from somewhere to sell them. Also, even if they do have the shares, but the broker has lent them out, the broker has to get hold of them to return them when they are sold.
I think you are thinking of call options, a Put option is the option to sell. so if someone sells you a put option they are basically saying I will buy your shares on this particular day at this particular price. If you choose to exercise the option.
The point being no one has any obligation to find shares they donāt have. they person who sells the shares can just choose not to exercise the option
If you are the person who created the put you donāt need to find any shares from anywhere. If the put was exercised you would be buying shares. If itās not exercised you made a profit on the premium, congrats.
Call options would be the ones where someone has an obligation to find shares, if you sell a call option and someone exercises it you have an obligation to sell them shares. if you donāt have them then you could be in trouble.
A put doesnāt give the right to own shares, it gives the right to sell shares at a set price. There is no obligation to own the shares. If the share price is higher than the strike price you just wouldnāt exercise the option. If the share price is lower you would buy low on the open market and sell at the strike price for a profit. The point is none of this is mandatory. Itās called an option for a reason. If the shares are unavailable you donāt need to do anything.
Only if the person who buys it decides to exercise it, the decision is with the person who bought the option. That is why itās called an option. In a situation where the price is spiking because of a squeeze or whatever there is no logical reason why anyone would exercise a put
The option writer doesnāt have a right to force the buyer to exercise the option. So in the case of a put the only person who needs to be able to acquire shares from somewhere is the person who holds the option. and they have the choice to not exercise and do nothing.
This is correct, but in the case of a put itās the person who holds the option and therefore has a choice who needs the shares, that is why I canāt see how it would contribute to a squeeze.
The person who wrote the option needs cash to cover, not shares
You donāt need to hold any shares borrowed or otherwise to write a put option. if you write a put option you are making an offer to buy shares. You donāt need to borrow shares to offer to buy more.
You donāt need to hold any shares borrowed or otherwise to buy a put option, if the price is lower than the strike price at expiry you have the option to buy low on the open market and immediately sell at a profit for the strike price.
At the time of writing the put no shares have been bought or sold or borrowed, itās just an optional offer.
Interesting discussion on the fundamentals here.
I think the main anomalies are the call deep ITM which seem to be exercised immediately after being issued (possibly to avoid Failure to Deliver on shorts) and the amount of Put options slightly OTM. My thoughts were as the strike price is approached, the Market Maker who is liable for these option contracts would then short shores in order to remain neutral on the contract (whilst making money on the premium).
Have I understood this correctly?
Many thanks,